In your estimation, was Germanic law more or less just than the legal system we live under today? Explain your reasoning.

This question doesn't have a simple solution. It all depends on how we understand the concept of "justice." Germanic law may have been more just than the current legal system if individuals think that justice is about ensuring that everyone is treated equally and fairly. If justice is defined as ensuring that those who commit crimes are punished, then the Germanic legal system could have been less fair than our own. I do think that our current legal system is fairer than Germanic law, however. Eye for an eye was the basis of Germanic law, which often led to harsh penalties. The proportionality concept, which underpins today's legal system, leads to more fair sanctions.

In your estimation, was Germanic law more or less just than the legal system we live under today? Explain your reasoning.

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